FAA Part 107 Test Questions: A Comprehensive Guide 2025

Published on April 24, 2025

If you’re searching for practice FAA Part 107 test questions to aid your study, you’ve likely encountered the frustration of outdated materials that don’t reflect the latest regulatory changes. This article provides 72 sample Part 107 knowledge test questions, compiled from FAA-published sources and informed by my expertise as an aviation attorney and FAA-certified flight instructor.

The Part 107 initial knowledge exam consists of 60 questions, and you’ll have 120 minutes to complete it. To pass, you need a minimum score of 70%, meaning you must answer at least 42 questions correctly and can miss no more than 18. While the exam has 60 questions, I’ve included 72 here to offer extra practice and ensure comprehensive preparation.

You might be curious about recurrent knowledge exams. Previously required, these were replaced in January 2021 with an online recurrent training option, simplifying the process for certified pilots.

Breakdown of FAA Part 107 Test Questions

The FAA Part 107 knowledge test is divided into five key areas, each contributing a specific percentage to the exam:

Area	Percentage
I. Regulations	15-25%
II. Airspace	15-25%
III. Weather	11-16%
IV. Loading & Performance	7-11%
V. Operations	35-45%

The 72 sample questions below are organized according to these areas, aligning with the ACS for structured study.

Sample FAA Part 107 Knowledge Exam Questions

Here are the 72 sample questions, grouped by area. The correct answer is bolded and italicized, with my clarifications in brackets. These questions mirror the FAA’s style and can be used to create a practice exam.

Area I. Regulations (22 Questions)

When a small UA causes an accident and your crew member loses consciousness, when do you need to report it?
- A) No accidents need to be reported.
- B) When requested by the UA owner.
- C) Within 10 days of the accident. [Per 107.9, report within 10 calendar days if the accident meets specific criteria.]
What are the registration requirements for small unmanned aircraft systems?
- A) When the aircraft weighs less than 0.55 pounds on takeoff, including everything attached.
- B) When the aircraft has a takeoff weight of more than 0.55 pounds but less than 55 pounds, excluding fuel and necessary attachments. [This applies under Part 48; Part 47 is for drones 55 lbs or more.]
- C) All small UAS must be registered, regardless of weight. [Incorrect.]
According to 14 CFR Part 48, when must a small UA be registered with the FAA?
- A) All civilian small UAS weighing greater than 0.55 pounds must be registered, regardless of its intended use. [See 48.1 and 48.15.]
- B) When the small UA is used for any purpose other than as a model aircraft.
- C) Only when the operator will be paid for commercial services.
When would a small UA owner not be permitted to register it?
- A) The owner is less than 13 years old. [Per 48.25, registration requires an owner 13 or older.]
- B) All persons must register their small UA.
- C) If the owner does not have a valid United States driver’s license. [Not required under Part 48 or 47.]
Where should a small unmanned aircraft’s serial number be listed when using standard remote identification or a broadcast module?
- A) The aircraft’s Document of Compliance.
- B) The manufacturer’s Method of Compliance.
- C) The Certificate of Aircraft Registration. [See 48.110.]
A small UA must be operated in a way that
- A) does not endanger the life or property of others. [Most critical requirement.]
- B) requires more than one visual observer. [Only needed in specific cases, e.g., FPV racing under 107.31.]
- C) never exceeds 200 feet AGL.
If you plan to release golf balls from your small UA at 100 feet AGL, you must ensure the objects being dropped
- A) will not create an undue hazard to persons or property. [Per 107.23(b).]
- B) land within 10 feet of the expected landing zone.
- C) not cause property damage over $300.
After having dinner and wine, your client asks you to demonstrate the small UA’s capabilities. You must
- A) pass a self-administered sobriety test before operating a small UA.
- B) not operate a small UA within 8 hours of consuming any alcoholic beverage. [“8 hours from bottle to throttle” rule.]
- C) ensure your visual observer hasn’t consumed alcohol in the last 12 hours.
According to 14 CFR part 107, what is required to operate a small UA within 30 minutes after official sunset?
- A) Use of anti-collision lights. [Per 107.29(b), must be visible for 3 statute miles.]
- B) Must be operated in a rural area.
- C) Use of a transponder.
If you see a hot air balloon entering your area during flight, you must
- A) yield the right-of-way to the hot air balloon. [Per 107.37, UAS must yield to all aircraft.]
- B) ensure the UA passes below, above, or ahead of the balloon.
- C) expect the hot air balloon to climb above your altitude.
How can a remote pilot operate an unmanned aircraft in Class C airspace according to 14 CFR part 107?
- A) The remote pilot must have prior authorization from ATC for that airspace. [Per 107.41.]
- B) The remote pilot must monitor the ATC frequency from launch to recovery. [Not required, but wise.]
- C) The remote pilot must contact ATC after launching the unmanned aircraft. [Incorrect; contact must be prior.]
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 78): You’ve been hired to inspect railroad tracks from Blencoe to Onawa. Will ATC authorization be required?
- A) Yes, Onawa is in Class D airspace.
- B) No, your flight is entirely in Class G airspace.
- C) Yes, you need to contact the Onawa control tower if you’re within 5 miles of the airport.
Who is responsible for determining the performance of a small unmanned aircraft?
- A) Remote pilot-in-command. [Per 107.19, the PIC is accountable.]
- B) Manufacturer.
- C) Owner or operator.
According to 14 CFR part 107, what is the maximum groundspeed for a small UA?
- A) 87 knots. [Equals 100 MPH.]
- B) 87 mph.
- C) 100 knots. [Incorrect; it’s 100 MPH, not knots.]
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 78): If you’ve been contracted to inspect towers 4NM southwest of Sioux Gateway (SUX) airport, what is the maximum altitude above ground level (AGL) for operating over the towers?
- A) 400 feet AGL.
- B) 402 feet AGL. [Within 400 ft of a structure, you can go 400 ft above it, per 107.]
- C) 802 feet AGL. [Requires a rare waiver/COA.]
If the FAA requests it, the remote pilot-in-command must provide:
- A) A logbook documenting small UA landing currency. [Not required under 107.]
- B) A remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating. [Per 107.7.]
- C) Any employer-issued photo identification.
When can a remote pilot reduce the intensity of a small UAS’s lights during a night flight?
- A) At no time may the lights be reduced in intensity at night.
- B) When a manned aircraft is in the vicinity of the sUAS. [Illogical; lights are vital here.]
- C) When it’s in the interest of safety to dim the lights.
The refusal to submit to a blood alcohol test when requested by law enforcement:
- A) Is grounds for suspension or revocation of the remote pilot certificate. [Per 107.59.]
- B) Can be delayed for up to 8 hours after the request.
- C) Has no impact on the remote pilot certificate.
To conduct Category 1 operations, a remote pilot must use a small unmanned aircraft that weighs:
- A) 0.55 pounds or less.
- B) 0.65 pounds or less.
- C) 0.75 pounds or less.
Which category of small unmanned aircraft requires an airworthiness certificate issued by the FAA?
- A) 4.
- B) 3.
- C) 2.
What must a person manipulating the controls of a small unmanned aircraft do if the standard remote identification fails during flight?
- A) Land the aircraft as soon as practicable.
- B) Notify the nearest FAA Air Traffic facility.
- C) Activate the aircraft’s navigation lights. [Not required under 107.]
What does the dashed magenta line in a circle east of the Pueblo Airport represent?
- A) Class E at the surface airspace.
- B) This is an isogonic line.
- C) This is a national security area.

Area II. Airspace (13 Questions)

The floor of Class B airspace at Dallas Executive (RBD) is:
- A) At the surface.
- B) 3,000 feet MSL. [Class B overhangs Class D, typically up to but not including 3,000 ft.]
- C) 3,100 feet MSL.
What is the floor of Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
- A) 1,300 feet AGL. [Airspace altitudes are not in AGL.]
- B) 1,300 feet MSL. [Requires a COA.]
- C) 1,700 feet MSL.
According to 14 CFR part 107, what does the remote pilot in command need to do before operating within Class C airspace?
- A) Must use a visual observer. [Not required unless specific conditions apply.]
- B) Is required to file a flight plan. [Not necessary.]
- C) Must receive ATC authorization. [Per 107.41.]
What type of airport is Pueblo Airport?
- A) Class B
- B) Class C
- C) Class D
The Fentress NALF Airport (NFE) is in which type of airspace?
- A) Class C
- B) Class E. [Indicated by a dashed magenta line.]
- C) Class G.
The chart shows a gray line with “VR1667, VR1617, VR1638, and VR1668.” Could this area be hazardous for small UA operations?
- A) No, all operations are above 400 feet.
- B) Yes, this is a Military Training Route from 1,500 feet AGL. [Helicopters may fly below 400 ft.]
- C) Yes, the defined route ensures separation for manned aircraft.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 75, Area 6.) If you’re planning to operate in R-2305, where can you find more information about this airspace?
- A) In the Aeronautical Information Manual. [General info only.]
- B) In the Charts Supplements U.S. [Detailed info, including schedules.]
- C) In the Special Use Airspace section of the chart. [Less comprehensive.]
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 21.) You’ve been hired to inspect crops in the Devil’s Lake West MOA, east of area 2. How do you find out if the MOA is active?
- A) Check the legend for the special use airspace phone number. [Actually VHF frequencies; check NOTAMs or call.]
- B) This information is available in the Small UAS database. [Nonsense.]
- C) In the Military Operations Directory. [Doesn’t exist.]
What does the dashed magenta line in a circle east of the Pueblo Airport represent?
- A) Class E at the surface airspace.
- B) This is an isogonic line.
- C) This is a national security area.
Your company sponsors a team at the Indianapolis 500, and you plan to film the race with a small UA. The FAA has issued a TFR. What should you do?
- A) You may fly since your company sponsors a team. [Sponsorship doesn’t exempt you.]
- B) The TFR applies to all aircraft; you cannot fly without a Certificate of Waiver or Authorization.
- C) You can fly if you notify all non-participating people.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 23, Area 4.) What is the required flight visibility near Plantation Airport (JYL)?
- A) 5 statute miles.
- B) 1 statute mile.
- C) 3 statute miles. [Part 107 standard.]
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 20, area 2.) Why is the small flag at Lake Drummond important to a remote pilot?
- A) This is a VFR checkpoint for manned aircraft, and higher air traffic volumes should be expected. [Increases collision risk.]
- B) This is a GPS checkpoint for both manned and remote pilots.
- C) Indicates a large obstruction on the next chart.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 20, area 5.) How would a remote PIC “CHECK NOTAMS” regarding the unmarked balloon?
- A) By utilizing the B4UFLY mobile application. [Limited utility.]
- B) By contacting the FAA district office. [Not practical.]
- C) By obtaining a briefing via an online source such as 1800WXBrief.com.

Area III. Weather (6 Questions)

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 12.) What are the current conditions for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)?
- A) Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2SM, rain.
- B) Sky 7000 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2SM, heavy rain. [7000 ft is incorrect.]
- C) Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 11, occasionally 2SM, with rain. [Visibility format wrong.]
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 12.) The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from:
- A) 180° true at 4 knots. [Printed data is true, except for specific cases.]
- B) 180° magnetic at 4 knots.
- C) 040° true at 18 knots.
What effect does high density altitude have on the efficiency of a UA propeller?
- A) Propeller efficiency is increased.
- B) Propeller efficiency is decreased. [Fewer air molecules reduce lift.]
- C) Density altitude does not affect propeller efficiency.
What are the characteristics of stable air?
- A) Good visibility and steady precipitation. [Incorrect; visibility is poor.]
- B) Poor visibility and steady precipitation. [Stratiform clouds, smooth air.]
- C) Poor visibility and intermittent precipitation. [Unstable air trait.]
What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
- A) Turbulence and showery precipitation. [Cumuliform clouds, good visibility.]
- B) Poor visibility and smooth air. [Stable air.]
- C) Haze and smoke. [Stable air.]
A briefing indicates a low-level temperature inversion with high relative humidity. What weather conditions would you expect?
- A) Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds. [Inversion traps moisture.]
- B) Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain. [Less likely.]
- C) Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus clouds, and showery precipitation. [Unstable traits.]

Area IV. Loading & Performance (4 Questions)

To ensure the unmanned aircraft’s center of gravity (CG) limits are not exceeded, follow the instructions in the:
- A) Pilot’s Operating Handbook or UAS Flight Manual. [Though rare for drones.]
- B) Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). [General info only.]
- C) Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook. [Not specific to your UA.]
A stall occurs when the wing
- A) exceeds the maximum speed. [Causes structural failure, not stall.]
- B) exceeds maximum allowable operating weight. [Increases stress, not stall.]
- C) exceeds its critical angle of attack. [Disrupts lift.]
The load factor on the wings may increase whenever
- A) the CG is shifted rearward to the aft CG limit. [Reduces load.]
- B) the aircraft is subjected to maneuvers other than straight and level flight.
- C) the gross weight is reduced. [Decreases load.]
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 2.) If an unmanned aircraft weighs 33 pounds, what weight would it support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude?
- A) 34 pounds.
- B) 47 pounds.
- C) 38 pounds. [33 lbs × 1.154 load factor = 38.082 lbs.]

Area V. Operations (28 Questions)

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 26, area 2.) An aircraft announces they are midfield left downwind to RWY 13 at Cooperstown. Where are they relative to the runway?
- A) The aircraft is East. [RWY 13 is 130° magnetic, left pattern.]
- B) The aircraft is South.
- C) The aircraft is West.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 21, Area 1.) Which frequency monitors manned aircraft and ATC near Minot International (MOT)?
- A) UNICOM 122.95
- B) ASOS 118.725.
- C) CT-118.2. [Control and CTAF frequency.]
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 21.) What airport is at approximately 47°40’N, 101°26’W?
- A) Mercer County Regional Airport.
- B) Semshenko Airport.
- C) Garrison Airport.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 22, area 2.) What is the CTAF frequency at Coeur D’Alene?
- A) 122.05 MHz. [Boise Flight Service.]
- B) 135.075 MHz. [AWOS.]
- C) 122.8 MHz. [CTAF.]
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 20, Area 4.) What is the height of the highest obstacle 2 NM northeast of Hertford?
- A) 399 feet MSL.
- B) 500 feet MSL.
- C) 500 feet AGL.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 26, area 4.) What must you receive to fly near the tower at 46.9N, 98.6W near Jamestown Regional (JMS)?
- A) Authorization from the military.
- B) Authorization from ATC. [Class E surface airspace.]
- C) Authorization from the National Park Service.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 24, Area 3, and Legend 1.) Where to find info on parachute operations at Tri-County Airport?
- A) Notes on the chart’s border.
- B) Chart Supplements U.S.
- C) NOTAM publication.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 78.) What airspace is associated with Sioux Gateway/Col Day (SUX) Airport?
- A) Class B airspace.
- B) Class C airspace.
- C) Class D airspace.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 24, Area 6.) What type of airport is Card Airport?
- A) Public towered.
- B) Public non-towered.
- C) Private non-towered.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 20, Area 3.) What hazard is 4 miles southeast of Elizabeth City Regional Airport (ECG)?
- A) High-density military operations.
- B) Unmarked balloon up to 3,008 feet AGL.
- C) Unmarked balloon up to 3,008 feet MSL.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 26.) What does the line of latitude at area 4 measure?
- A) Degrees east and west of the Prime Meridian.
- B) Degrees north and south from the equator.
- C) Degrees east and west of Greenwich.
The most comprehensive airport information is provided by
- A) the Chart Supplements U.S.
- B) Notices to Airmen (NOTAMS).
- C) Terminal Area Chart (TAC).
Who is responsible for briefing participants on emergency procedures in a commercial UA operation?
- A) The FAA inspector-in-charge.
- B) The lead visual observer.
- C) The remote PIC.
If your UA climbs above 600 feet AGL to avoid a manned airplane, to whom must you report the deviation?
- A) Air Traffic Control.
- B) The National Transportation Safety Board.
- C) Upon request of the Federal Aviation Administration.
What precautions should a remote PIC take with lithium-based batteries?
- A) Store in a freezer.
- B) Follow the manufacturer’s recommendations for safe battery handling.
- C) Charge until 100°F.
To avoid the final ‘link’ in the accident chain, what methodology should a remote pilot consider?
- A) Crew Resource Management.
- B) Safety Management System.
- C) Risk Management.
A TV station’s pilot has near misses and accidents. How to improve safety culture?
- A) Limit to five incidents in six months.
- B) No change needed; accidents happen.
- C) Recognize hazardous attitudes and create SOPs emphasizing safety.
When applying CRM to a small UA operation, it must be integrated into:
- A) The flight portion only.
- B) All phases of the operation.
- C) Communications only.
Defining roles between a PIC and visual observer is an example of:
- A) Crew Resource Management.
- B) Authoritarian Resource Management.
- C) Single Pilot Resource Management.
Taking risks to impress others shows what hazardous attitude?
- A) Impulsivity.
- B) Invulnerability.
- C) Macho.
A manager says ‘fly first, ask questions later.’ What hazardous attitude is this?
- A) Machismo.
- B) Invulnerability.
- C) Impulsivity.
Which is true about alcohol in the human body?
- A) Small amounts increase vision acuity.
- B) Water destroys alcohol and eases hangovers.
- C) Alcohol can negatively affect judgment even in small amounts.
How can fatigue be recognized after a 15-hour drive?
- A) Easily by an experienced pilot.
- B) As being in an impaired state.
- C) By overcoming sleep deprivation.
Which technique should a remote pilot use to scan for traffic?
- A) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
- B) Concentrate on peripheral movement.
- C) Continuously scan right to left.
After using a bright flashlight for preflight, what should an sUAS pilot know for a night flight?
- A) Eyes are immune to bright lights once adapted.
- B) It takes approximately 30 minutes for eyes to adapt to darkness.
- C) Use LED flashlights for night vision.
Under what condition should a small UA operator establish a maintenance protocol?
- A) When the manufacturer does not provide a maintenance schedule.
- B) UAS does not need a maintenance schedule.
- C) When the FAA requires it after an accident.
If the manufacturer provides no maintenance info, what should the operator do?
- A) Contact the FAA for a minimum equipment list.
- B) Establish a scheduled maintenance protocol.
- C) Contact the NTSB for failure rates.
According to 14 CFR part 107, who inspects the small UAS for safe condition?
- A) Remote pilot-in-command.
- B) Visual observer.
- C) Owner of the small UAS.